Posted by chaoscrowley on July 01, 2005 at 08:57:37:
In Reply to: Torah gave us Pi about 1000 yrs before the Greeks got it posted by Bible Probe on July 01, 2005 at 08:55:56:
I will try to elaborate on the problem:
Something else to ponder:
First, mathematically, take the etymology of the words hehvawquof and vawquof (the Hebrew word used in this verse, versus the usual word for circumference), and you'll find that the ratio of their numeric value (via Gametria) [(5 + 6 + 100)/(6 + 100)] is 1.0471698, which multiplied by 3 is pi.
Just for the heck of it look up word number "1047" in the Old Testament lexicon. It is "Beth Peor", spelled beth peor. Beth is translated "house of," and the first three letters of the last portion, peh, ayin, vaw could very easily be transliterated as "pi." Hence, "house of pi." Indeed, truth is stranger than fiction.
I will agree that 1047 in the lexicon is Beth Peor and does indeed translate to house of peor. The problem enters when you say that the first three letters could be transliterated to pi. They could be transliterated in this way. The problem is that if you drop the final letter (resh) then it no longer has any relation to 1047. It would be listed as a different number. Therefore it becomes irrelevant to the number found by dividing 111 by 106. (1.0471698) The main point here is that you are subtracting a letter and once that is done then the lexicon reference is no longer valid. If it were then you could simply drop all the letters except for peh ayin and vaw and state that this was evidence that simply the word pi is 1047.
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